The Bible NETWork ~ Impacting the World for Christ one post at a time!

Please permit me to amend, as I took to long to look up some verses and whatnot:

I must ask this simple question: in the verses which also, to your agreement use the same word, 1:3 (2x), 5 (2x), 6 (2x), 7, 8 (2x), 9, 11, 13 (2x), 14 (2x), 15 (2x), 19 (2x), 23 (2x), 24, 29, 30, 31 (2x), also mean that God had already made it so ? I mean, what is the point of saying when He said it was, if wasn't in the realm of 'it' becoming that way ? Remember, the Hebrew does not have the form of the word 'to become', therefore, it already was like that (which seems to be your position), or when God did something, said something, in context, it became that way, as it is rendered in Genesis 2:7 ? These things are why we make the effort to dig deeper into how The Lord Himself uses His Word.

While we read that all of God's work are perfect, we also read that something bad happened, hence, the need for redemption (which is the ultimate GOOD NEWS). And this bad thing has to do with a falling and a great spiritual foe. So while Isaiah assures us that God did not create the heavens and the earth without form and void, I read that you believe that in fact God did create it that way and only thereafter somehow actually created it the way it is now (with this great spiritual foe).

This argument against the language and The Lord's own interpretation fails to make sense to me. If, for example, we believe that only God's Word is Truth, then it makes no sense that the heavens and earth are only 6 thousand years old. However, if we take God at His Word then we find no conflict. The earth and heavens are really OLD. Something bad happened. This terrible thing that happened destroyed a previous creation. Peter also delineates (as do others) that there is the world (age) that then was (in immediate and direct contrast to) the world (age) that now is, and the world to come, which all OT and NT writers agree shall occur in resurrection to the Glory of His Great Names Sake.

Again, these contrast can be easily seen by that which this particular Bible Study Forum declares and quotes that The Word of Truth must be 'rightly divided', therefore, it may be of some service to compare these things that differ, for example, the contrast between the flood of Genesis 1:2, and that of the Noadic flood. If one were to list the events and the declarations made therein, it may be readily acknowledged that there are such great and many differences that they must not be the same.

N2A,
The verb haya in the Hebrew is the word of "becoming/being". Why do you think that Hebrew doesn't have such a word?

God did not finally create things as formless and void (meaning after the creative week), though that is how he initially created just before beginning to form and fill the heavens and the earth.

I find it rather curious that you automatically believe your interpretation to be "The Lords". Do you have any text of Scripture where the Lord actually explains things as you have supposed them to be?

I also find it curious that you refuse to believe that the numbers of years given from Adam to Noah (Genesis 5) and Noah to Abraham (Genesis 11) are not accurate (even if one accept the slightly differing years given by the LXX and Samaritan Pentateuch). On what do you base this other than modern assumptions about the age of the earth? Indeed you are correct to assert that the earth appears old, but this does not inherently prove age. Was the first man created as a sperm and egg or created mature with the appearance of age?

I also agree something bad happened...it happened in Genesis 3 and death entered the world (Romans 5:12; 8:20-21). Peter's reference (2 Peter 3:5-13) to the world that was, now is and is yet to come needs not refer to anything beyond his context of pre-flood, post-flood till the Day of the Lord, and post-Day of the Lord.

So when did Satan fall...whenever he fell...that would be my understanding of the lack of reference to this in Scripture.

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