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Bracketed word in Hebrew Psalm?

I really need your help here.
Does Psalm 139:6 hebrew oriiginal have bracketed word or 2 variations of one word “wonderful" :
http://interlinearbible.org/psalms/139-6.htm has
[פִּלְאִיָּה כ] (פְּלִ֣יאָֽה ק) דַ֣עַת ...
[pil•’î•yāh ḵ] (pə•lî•’āh q) ḏa•‘aṯ ...

Is there a round or square bracketed word in the original and why? Or is it saying the bracketed part is not in the original and inserted to add additonal info as in amplified bibles?

Or another website shows the same:
http://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInte ... psa139.pdf



So also this website shows the brackets too over the word ‘marvelous’.

Then if one bracketed word should be ignored and there’s no 2 variations of one word in this verse , then why is it translated as “Such knowledge is TOO wonderful" (NASB), “TOO amazing [is this] knowledge for me" (NET note), instead of just “wonderful /amazing" without “too"? Does the brackets add anything or cancel anything?


Now something similar but WITHOUT brackets. Please look at Lamentation 5:22: there seem to be similar wording BUT there’s no bracket.

http://interlinearbible.org/lamentations/5-22.htm
"Unless you have utterly rejected us and are angry with us beyond measure."
mā•’ōs mə•’as•tā•nū, ....
מָאֹ֣ס מְאַסְתָּ֔נוּ ..... Again better graphically:


And the same result from http://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInte ... f/lam5.pdf :



So here why there’s no bracket? I know it won’t change the meaning, probably not important to most people. But still it can affect translation style. Does the brackets add anything or cancel anything?

Looking forward to hearing from you. Thank you in advance.

On Psalm 139:6, the brackets are there to note that one of the readings is the Kethib (what is written) and the other is the Qere (what is read). I've underlined the K and Q because you will also note that there is a standalone כ kaph and ק qoph in the Hebrew text you have copied (they are represented by the English letters K and Q). The translator always has to make a choice between these two. They do not both properly belong to the text.The Qere is intended as a potential replacement for the Kethib, but is not required. They are left in the text as notations for reading. In this particular case it is basically just a matter of orthography (how it is written and therefore pronounced) as far as I can tell. In either case, it simply means "wonderful" or as some have made the implicit explanation "too wonderful". Both texts (NASB and NET) use the same Hebrew as a basis, it was merely a choice of translational equivalence and not a matter of a different Hebrew word.

As far as Lamentations 5:22, we have a Qal infinitive absolute (מָאֹ֣ס) and the Qal qatal verb (מְאַסְתָּ֔נוּ) with a suffixed ending. This is a way in Hebrew to intensify the sense of the verb. The use of an infinitive absolute with a finite verb of the same Hebrew root tends to emphasize the certainty of the verb. For example, in Genesis 2:17 ( מ֥וֹת תָּמֽוּת), Gen. 3:4 ( מ֖וֹת תְּמֻתֽוּן). You can find this discussed in the following grammars: Gesenius (GKC) §113 l-r; Waltke-O'Connor §35.3.1; Joüon-Muraoka §123 d-q. There are no brackets in Lam. 5:22 because these terms are not the Kethib/Qere. These terms both actually belong to the Hebrew text proper.

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Thank you very much. This clarifies things.

No problem. I'm just happy to help if I can.

_________________
Everyone is equal at the foot of the cross...just some are more equal than others.
Forum Code of Conduct
Bible.org Doctrinal Statement
rickwadholmjr.wordpress.com
iheartbarth.wordpress.com
bluechippastor.org
Twitter: @RickWadholmJr